CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Which of the following is true about server pools?

A. Server pools can be populated manually

B. Server pools are logical

C. Blade server cannot be in multiple pools at same time

D. A server profile is associated with the pool

Which options describe the capabilities of the Cisco MDS 9000 Series switching modules? (Choose three)

A. Cisco MDS 9000 8-Gbps Advanced Fibre Channel Switching Modules provide line-rate switching across all the ports on the same module without performance degradation by using crossbar architecture

B. There are four Cisco MDS 9000 Family 8-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Modules available for use

C. Cisco FlexSpeed technology enables ports on the Cisco MDS 9000 Family 8-Gbps Advanced Fibre Channel Switching Modules to be configured as Fibre Channel interfaces

D. Cisco MDS 9000 Family 8-Gpbs Advanced Fibre Channel Switching Modules are available in three configurations

E. Cisco MDS 9000 Family 8-Gbps Advanced Fibre Channel Switching Modules are equipped with integrated Call Home capability

How does the flow control improve performance under high traffic loads? (Choose three)

A. A credit-based flow control strategy prevents frames from being lost when the Tx Port runs out of free buffers

B. Using flow control, the Tx Port sends frames only when it knows that the Rx Port can accept them

C. A credit-based flow control strategy ensures that the Tx Port is always in control

D. Preventing lost frames maximizes performance under high-traffic load conditions because the Tx Port does not need to resend frames

E. Using a credit-based flow control, the receiver must issue a credit for each frame that the transmitter sends before at frame can be sent

What is a virtual interface that migrates along with a VM and virtual network link called?

A. Floating vEth interface

B. Static vNIC

C. Fixed vEth interface

D. Dynamic vNIC

Which is a feature of RAID 0+1?

A. Improves read performance

B. Features low input/ output rates

C. Cheaper alternative to RAID 0

D. Provides a low fault tolerance

What options describe Fibre Channel WWN addressing? (Choose three)

A. nWWNs uniquely identify each port in a device

B. pWWNs uniquely identify each port in a device

C. WWN address are dynamically acquired addresses that are routable in a switch fabric

D. Every Fibre Channel port and node has a hard-coded WWN address

E. WWN address are guaranteed to be globally unique

Which options describe the fabric extender connectivity? (Choose four)

A. Port extension allows the fabric extender to act as a data path extension of the parent switch

B. Forwarding can be performed by any switch in the domain

C. All control and management functions are performed by the parent switch

D. Forwarding from and to a FEX is based on a VNTag

E. The link(s) between the fabric extender and the upstream switch multiplex the traffic from multiple devices that connect to the FEX

F. Physical host extender interfaces are represented with physical interfaces on the parent switch

Which options influence the data center design? (Choose four)

A. Architectures that can distribute Layer 2 traffic on all available links

B. The need for a higher level of reliability, with minimized downtime for updates and configuration changes

C. The need to decrease computing power at a lower cost

D. The need to reduce overall power consumption in the data center

E. The need to optimize computing resources by increasing the rate of growth of physical computing nodes

F. Architectures capable of supporting a SAN and a LAN on the same network for server consolidation

Which license is required to support VDCs on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?

A. Scalable Services license

B. Base license

C. Advanced LAN Enterprise license

D. Enterprise license

Identify the limitations and restrictions when completing the Cisco NX-OS ISSU on the Nexus 7000. (Choose three)

A. Any changes in the network settings may cause a disruptive upgrade

B. It does not change any configuration settings or network connections during the upgrade

C. The software upgrade may be disruptive when a single supervisor system with kickstart or system image changes

D. A blocked configuration mode during the Cisco ISSU software upgrade does not prevent changes

What are the benefits of server virtualization? (Choose two)

A. It allows you to place servers in different physical locations

B. You can have multiple instances of the same type of operating system running in parallel on one server

C. The virtualization layer provides uniformity of hardware to the installed operating system

D. It is independent of storage platform or SAN transport

How does the OTV control protocol handle unknown unicasts and ARP caching? (Choose three)

A. Flooding is required for MAC address learning

B. OTV edge devices forward Layer 2 traffic only if it has previously received information on how to reach that remote MAC destination

C. Each OTV edge device maintains an ARP cache to reduce ARP traffic on the overlay

D. By default, OTV suppresses the flooding of unknown unicast frames across the overlay

Which of the following describe VDC interface allocation? (Choose four)

A. After a physical port is assigned to a VDC, all subsequent configuration of that port is performed within that VDC

B. On most I/O modules, any logical port can be individually assigned to any VDC

C. Within a VDC, both physical and logical interfaces can be assigned to VLANs

D. Physical ports are allocated to different VDCs from VDC 2

E. Logical interfaces, such as SVIs and/or tunnel interfaces, cannot be assigned to a VDC

F. Logical interfaces are always created in the VDC to which they belong

Which of the following IEEE standards send pause notifications to the sender of frames?

A. Priority Flow Control

B. Link-Level Flow Control

C. Enhanced Transmission Selection

D. Data Center Bridging Exchange

Which is a feature of the VIC 1280?

A. Compatible with 6200 Fabric Interconnect

B. Includes a software-based failover

C. Provides two minute failover response time

D. Provides maximum 40 gigabits per second

Which option determines bandwidth oversubscription with the Cisco UCS 2104XP I/O module?

A. CPU selection

B. The configuration in Cisco UCS Manager and choice of SFP transceiver

C. The number of links to the fabric interconnects

D. LUN masking

What are port profiles used for? (Choose two)

A. To manually configure an interface

B. To correspond to port groups in VMware

C. To configure interfaces in the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch with a common set of configuration commands

D. To assign network settings to VMs and uplink ports

Which two statements describe Wide Area Application Service (WAAS) support in the Data Center? (Choose two)

A. Service devices that are deployed in the distribution layer benefit only the servers that are directly attached to the specific distribution switch.

B. Using a dual-homing NIC in the access layer requires a VLAN or trunk link between the two access switches.

C. Deploying WAAS in the distribution layer may impose a large STP processing load.

D. The data center access layer requires Layer 2 connectivity.

E. Security and application service devices are typically deployed as modules in the access layer.

What options describe the capacities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series chassis? (Choose three)

A. It is capable of supervisor module redundancy operation with synchronization providing SSO in the event of a supervisor module failure

B. It has architecture that makes it possible to perform complete image upgrades non-disruptively with no impact to the data-forwarding plane

C. It has front-to-back airflow architecture to address the requirements for hot-aisle and cold-aisle deployments

D. It can be configured with one or more fabric modules up to a maximum of eight modules that provide capacity and redundancy

E. It uses switched Ethernet out-of-band channel (EOBC) for management and control of traffic between the supervisors and I/O modules

Which protocol is a block-based transport that provides lossless delivery over unified I/O?

A. SCSI

B. FCoE

C. Parallel SCSI cable

D. NFS

Which characteristic describes the LAN data center aggregation layer?

A. Service devices that are deployed at the aggregation layer are shared among all the servers.

B. New designs try to confine Layer 2 access to the aggregation layer.

C. The aggregation layer aggregates the uplinks from the data center core to the access layer.

D. The aggregation layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 2 to allow for better sharing of service devices across multiple servers.

Which item do you need to use when initially connecting an FEX to a server?

A. Fabric port channel

B. FEX uplink

C. FEX port

D. Fabric port

Which is a feature of parity?

A. Uses more storage than mirroring

B. Needs twice the amount of hard-drives

C. Generally costs more than mirroring

D. Uses one disk as a parity

Which interface is used to carry CDP packets from a VEM to a VSM?

A. Packet interface

B. Fixed vEth interface

C. Control interface

D. Floating vEth interface

What is located in the top-left pane of the Cisco UCS Manager GUI?

A. Navigation trail

B. Fault summary

C. Equipment tab

D. Server tab

Which option is an alternative to the three-tier architecture for small campus networks?

A. SAN island

B. VDCs

C. Device virtualization

D. Collapsed core

Identify the current and future Cisco MDS 9000 Series switch licensing model upgrade options that are possible. (Choose two)

A. Module-based Licensing

B. Feature-based Licensing

C. Kickstart-based Licensing

D. Port-based Licensing

Which best describes a feature of the FET?

A. Supports up to 100 meter connectivity

B. Supports over 110 meter connectivity

C. Supports less than 50 meter connectivity

D. Supports over 100 meter connectivity

Which module component enables keyboard and mouse functions?

A. Chassis Management Switch

B. UCS Manager

C. Integrated Management Controller

D. Chassis Management Controller

What provides hardware-based isolation and segments the physical fabric into multiple logical fabrics?

A. FCNS

B. VSAN

C. FLOGI

D. Zoning

Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch capabilities have been greatly enhanced compared to vSwitches or vDSs? (Choose two)

A. Network vMotion

B. VLAN control

C. QoS capabilities

D. Bi-directional traffic shaping

What are the benefits of using vNetwork distributed switch when compared to the vNetwork standard switch? (Choose two)

A. Multiple VMs are required to share the same physical uplinks to the network

B. There is no longer a one-to-one relationship between the server and the network port

C. It simplifies and unifies network virtualization management

D. It moves away from host-level network configuration

Which options describe the Layer 3 daughter card for the Cisco Nexus 5548 switch? (Choose two)

A. There is no requirement to power down the switch before installing the Layer 3 daughter card

B. The Layer 3 daughter card is also known and considered as a GEM

C. The N55-D160L3 is the Layer 3 daughter card that can be installed in any Cisco Nexus 5500 Series switch

D. Layer 3 support is enabled via a field-upgradable routing card that can be installed while the switch remains rack mounted

How does communication between the VSM and VEM occur? (Choose two)

A. The packet interface carries low-level messages to each VEM, to ensure proper configuration of the VEM

B. The packet interface carries network packets from the VEM to the VSM

C. Communication between the VSM and VEM is provided solely by the packet interface

D. The control interface maintains synchronization between the primary and secondary VSMs

Which server virtualization solution requires a host operating system?

A. VMware ESX

B. VMware Workstation

C. Microsoft Hyper-V

D. VMware vCenter Server

Which characteristic describes a collapsed core network architecture?

A. It overcomes the challenges that are inherent to traditional Layer 2 DCI technologies.

B. The switches provide direct connections for the access-layer switches, server farm, and edge modules.

C. One layer of switches connects servers to storage.

D. It uses credit-based flow control to prevent frames from being lost when the Rx port runs out of free buffers.

Which best describes the Blade Server Chassis power supply connectivity?

A. No power supply redundancy

B. Supports five power supplies

C. Power supply is not matrixed

D. Supports a pool of power

What are the benefits of virtualized switch chassis? (Choose four)

A. Supervisor redundancy in the control plane

B. Forwarding and fabric ASIC redundancy in the data plane

C. Power and fan supply redundancy

D. Isolated and redundant fabric paths

E. Isolated physical interfaces

Which is the most important IPV4 address for future administration?

A. Switch address

B. Default gateway

C. Subnet mask

D. Cluster address

What options are considered Cisco Nexus 7000 Series high availability features? (Choose three)

A. Service modularity

B. RBAC

C. Cooling subsystem

D. Dual redundant supervisors

E. Independent system management busses

A requirement for one of the data center switches is that it can support a front-to-back airflow to address the requirements for hot-aisle and cold-aisle deployments without any additional complexity.

Which product meets this requirement?

A. Cisco Nexus 9-Slot Switch

B. Cisco Nexus 18-Slot Switch

C. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series

D. Cisco Nexus 10-Slot Switch

What is used to provide Equal-Cost Multipath (ECMP) load balancing in the data plane to allow the use of all the links that are available between a client and server?

A. VN-Link

B. Zoning

C. Cisco FabricPath

D. VSM

The Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch has two slots that are available for supervisor modules. You need a supervisor module that can support 48 Gigabit Ethernet ports using SFP options and speeds up to 46 Gb/s on the switch fabric interface.

Which supervisor module meets this requirement?

A. N7K-M108X2-12L

B. N7K-M148GS-11

C. N7K-M132XP-12

D. N7K-M148GT-11

Select the statements that describe tradition layer 2 DCI solutions. (Choose three)

A. Traditional Layer 2 DCI solutions are commonly built over PPPOE

B. Traditional Layer 2 DCI solutions tend to make inefficient use of bandwidth

C. EoMPLS is used to provision point-to-point Layer 2 Ethernet connections between two sites using MPLS as the transport

D. Dark fiber technologies increase the total bandwidth over the same number of fibers

E. VPLS is used to provision point-to-point Layer 2 Ethernet connections between two sites using point-to-point Ethernet pseudowires

Which two statements describe host-based virtualization? (Choose two)

A. It is independent of the underlying SAN technology.

B. Virtualization is provided within the Fibre Channel switch.

C. It is proprietary to the storage platform used.

D. It requires a special software driver.

E. It provides high performance and scalability.

What is used to tell a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch which policies to apply to packets being sent to and from a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender?

A. VN-Link

B. VSS

C. VNTag

D. VDC

What benefits does network-based virtualization provide to overcome the challenges of traditional SAN management solutions? (Choose two)

A. Data is better protected by simplified snapshot and replication techniques

B. The virtualization manager remaps the CDB and LUN and returns it to the server

C. The server sends the modified control frame to the storage target port

D. Servers are no longer responsible for volume management and data migration

Which activity is not compatible with the FIP?

A. Discovers FCoE capable devices

B. Establishes VN-VF link

C. Discovers FC links

D. Discovers FCoE FCFs on a VLAN

Which protocol is a file-based storage protocol primarily used by UNIX and Linux servers?

A. CIFS

B. FCoE

C. NFS

D. iSCSI

Which endpoints elements can be managed from the UCS Manager?

A. Switch

B. All of the above

C. Blade server

D. Chassis

E. Rack server

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