CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Which is a feature of RAID 6?

A. Uses single parity

B. Utilizes mirroring

C. Uses double parity

D. Performance enhancement

Which two statements describe Wide Area Application Service (WAAS) support in the Data Center? (Choose two)

A. Service devices that are deployed in the distribution layer benefit only the servers that are directly attached to the specific distribution switch.

B. Using a dual-homing NIC in the access layer requires a VLAN or trunk link between the two access switches.

C. Deploying WAAS in the distribution layer may impose a large STP processing load.

D. The data center access layer requires Layer 2 connectivity.

E. Security and application service devices are typically deployed as modules in the access layer.

What information would you expect to be returned from the "show module" command on the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch? (Choose four)

A. Status

B. Ports

C. Model

D. Domain ID

E. Control VLAN

F. Module type

Which two statements describe host-based virtualization? (Choose two)

A. It is independent of the underlying SAN technology.

B. Virtualization is provided within the Fibre Channel switch.

C. It is proprietary to the storage platform used.

D. It requires a special software driver.

E. It provides high performance and scalability.

Which is the first step that needs to be performed when configuring FEX on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches?

A. Configure all the FEX fabric links to belong to each of the VDCs that will be used.

B. Install the FEX feature set in the default VDC.

C. Configure dynamic pinning.

D. Configure a port channel for the FEX fabric interfaces.

You need a block-based storage protocol that can support database applications that require high bandwidth and performance and can be transported over many different media forms.

Which protocol will you need?

A. FCoE

B. NFS

C. SCSI

D. iSCSI

When planning storage virtualization, why would you consider using array-based virtualization? (Choose two)

A. You require storage platform independence

B. You require high performance and scalability

C. You require host platform independence

D. You require a software solution

What options are considered Cisco Nexus 7000 Series high availability features? (Choose three)

A. Service modularity

B. RBAC

C. Cooling subsystem

D. Dual redundant supervisors

E. Independent system management busses

Which feature is used to ensure that the initiator (server) has access to the correct storage device and cannot corrupt data from other initiators?

A. ACLs

B. VSANs

C. zoning

D. VLANs

Which of the following is/are required to configure communication between the VSM and vCenter? (Choose two)

A. Manual configuration on the VSM

B. No further software installation is required

C. Port 80 must be available for use

D. The use of the installer application on the VSM

Which option is an alternative to the three-tier architecture for small campus networks?

A. SAN island

B. VDCs

C. Device virtualization

D. Collapsed core

Identify the options that describe the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series power supply capabilities. (Choose three)

A. The power supplies modules have a temperature sensor and instrumentation to prevent damage due to overheating

B. There are five redundancy modes that are available for power supplies on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches

C. When installing redundant Cisco Nexus 7000 Series power supplies, they must be exact and cannot be dissimilar power supply types

D. Each 10-slot chassis can hold up to three load-sharing, fault-tolerant, and hot-swappable power supply modules

E. The modules are hot-swappable with no downtime when replacing power supply modules

Identify the options that describe OTV control plane operations. (Choose three)

A. MAC addresses are advertised in the background once the OTV has been configured

B. There is no dependency with the Layer 3 routing protocol used in the transport infrastructure

C. OTV depends on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information

D. OTV uses IS-IS as the control protocol between the edge devices

E. The OTV control plane overlay interface requires explicit configuration

When creating service profiles from a template, what options are initially available in the wizard? (Choose two)

A. Target pool

B. Server list

C. Naming suffix

D. Number

E. Naming prefix

What options describe the capacities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series chassis? (Choose three)

A. It is capable of supervisor module redundancy operation with synchronization providing SSO in the event of a supervisor module failure

B. It has architecture that makes it possible to perform complete image upgrades non-disruptively with no impact to the data-forwarding plane

C. It has front-to-back airflow architecture to address the requirements for hot-aisle and cold-aisle deployments

D. It can be configured with one or more fabric modules up to a maximum of eight modules that provide capacity and redundancy

E. It uses switched Ethernet out-of-band channel (EOBC) for management and control of traffic between the supervisors and I/O modules

Which is a feature of the B440 M2 Blade Server model?

A. Half-slot form factor

B. Can support four CPUs

C. Single mezzanine adapter slot

D. Maximum RAM of 512 GB

Which protocol is a block-based transport that provides lossless delivery over unified I/O?

A. SCSI

B. FCoE

C. Parallel SCSI cable

D. NFS

Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch capabilities have been greatly enhanced compared to vSwitches or vDSs? (Choose two)

A. Network vMotion

B. VLAN control

C. QoS capabilities

D. Bi-directional traffic shaping

Which Cisco UCS server rack model has up to 16 hard-drives, 1 TB of RAM, and up to 2 CPUs?

A. C460

B. C240

C. C260

D. C220

Identify the statements that describe control, management, and data planes on Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series switches. (Choose four)

A. The UPC ASIC manages all packet-processing operations on ingress and egress interfaces

B. The UCF schedules and switches packets from ingress to egress UPCs and is simply known as "the fabric"

C. A set of unified port controllers (UPCs) are used to perform data plane processing

D. Cisco NX-OS provides isolation between control and data forwarding planes so that disruption within one plane does not disrupt the other

E. UCFs provide distributed packet forwarding capabilities

F. All port-to-port traffic passes through the UPC

Which options describe how the NFS protocol transports data between servers and remote storage devices? (Choose four)

A. Network File System (NFS) uses the client-server architecture

B. To the NFS clients the local disks look like the remote disks

C. Allows systems to access shared files and directories stored and administered centrally from a storage system

D. There are two versions of NFS, version 1 (NFSv1) and version 2 (NFSv2)

E. NFS resides at Layer 7 within the OSI protocol stack

F. A NFS server has one or more file systems that are mounted by the NFS clients

You are looking at Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Fabric Extender fabric port connectivity.

Which options describe the 7000 Series Fabric Extender fabric port connectivity? (Choose three)

A. When a FEX is connected to a 7000 Series Switch, it should be connected by using a 32-port 10-Gb/s M1 module

B. The FEX can be connected to any Cisco Nexus 7000 Series device in the domain

C. The failure of FEX uplinks or the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series will not cause the failure of server ports on the FEX

D. All FEX host ports belong to the same VDC to which the FEX fabric links are connected

E. Multiple FEX uplink ports can use the same 10-Gb/s ports group in shared rate mode on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series

Which vPC component provides a Layer 3 communication path used as a secondary test to determine whether the remote peer is operating properly?

A. vPC link

B. vPC peer link

C. vPC peer

D. vPC peer keepalive

Identify the limitations and restrictions when completing the Cisco NX-OS ISSU on the Nexus 7000. (Choose three)

A. Any changes in the network settings may cause a disruptive upgrade

B. It does not change any configuration settings or network connections during the upgrade

C. The software upgrade may be disruptive when a single supervisor system with kickstart or system image changes

D. A blocked configuration mode during the Cisco ISSU software upgrade does not prevent changes

Identify the options that describe how the SCSI protocol transports data between servers and remote storage devices. (Choose three)

A. SCSI uses a parallel architecture in which data is sent simultaneously over one single wire

B. Connectivity between a SCSI host and a SCSI device can be supported on internal connections only

C. SCSI technology still has limitations from a networking perspective

D. Hosts communicate with several SCSI devices by using multiple full-duplex I/O channels

E. SCSI uses a bus technology that supports multiple devices that are attached to a controller and can support daisy-chaining

F. SCSI communication is between an initiator and a target

How can VSANs increase the efficiency of a SAN fabric? (Choose four)

A. They allow for fewer less costly redundant fabrics to be built and provide an island-like isolation

B. When a VSAN is created, a separate set of Cisco Fabric Services, configuration management capability, and policies are created within the new VSAN

C. Each separate virtual fabric is isolated by using a software-based frame tagging mechanism on VSAN member ports and EISL links

D. Spare ports within the fabric can be quickly and non-disruptively assigned to existing VSANs, providing a clean method of virtually growing application-specific SAN islands

E. They alleviate the need to build multiple physically isolated fabrics to meet organizational or application needs

F. VSANs provide only hardware-based isolation

Which two layers refer to the same functional layer in the LAN data center? (Choose two)

A. Distribution layer

B. Aggregation layer

C. Core layer

D. Access layer

Which command would you use to ping host 172.16.1.42 from the management interface of the Cisco Nexus 7010?

A. ping 172.16.1.42

B. ping vrf mgmt 172.16.1.42

C. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf default

D. ping 172.16.1.42 vrf management

Which is a feature of RAID 0?

A. Provides single disk redundancy

B. Reduces disk performance

C. Provides two disk redundancy

D. Data distributed among all disks

Which situation is not applicable to the Unified Fabric Data Center?

A. Less framework components

B. Less switches

C. Less network adapters

D. Less distribution layers

What are the characteristics of the vNetwork standard switch operation in a virtual network? (Choose two)

A. It supports inbound and outbound load balancing

B. It participates in STP, DTP, or PAgP

C. It provides connectivity for VM communication within and between ESX hosts

D. It operates as a physical layer 2 switch

What statements best describe the Cisco Nexus 5000 data plane system architecture? (Choose three)

A. Cisco NX-OS provides isolation between control and data forwarding planes so that disruption within one plane does not disrupt the other

B. A single stage Unified Crossbar Fabric (UCF) interconnects the Unified Port Controllers (UPC)

C. The UPC is responsible for coupling ingress UFCs to available egress UFCs

D. The UFC manages all packet-processing operations within the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches

E. Each UPC manages four 10 Gigabit Ethernet ports and makes forwarding decisions for the packets received on those ports

Which command is entered on the ESXi host to confirm which interface is used as the uplink?

A. vem status

B. show module

C. show svs connections

D. show module vem map

Which describes a feature of the Ethernet port roles?

A. Port modes cannot be changed

B. Physical ports cannot be changed

C. Port roles can be unconfigured

D. Ports can have multiple roles

Which two statements describe the configuration of a zone set? (Choose two)

A. When you initially create a new zone set, it becomes a part of the full zone set.

B. You need to copy the configuration to the startup configuration after initially activating a new zone.

C. The active zone set cannot be modified.

D. Zone set configurations are local to each switch.

What options describe the Fibre Channel Name Server service features? (Choose three)

A. FCNS supports soft zoning by performing WWN lookups to verify zone membership

B. The Fibre Channel Name Server (FCNS) implements a database in the fabric for storing information about FCIDs, pWWNs, and nWWNs

C. Management applications use Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) lookups to obtain information about the fabric

D. FCNS sends Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) to the fabric when a local change occurs

Which best describes upstream connections to the Layer 3 LAN domain and the Fibre Channel SAN edge switch?

A. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to SAN

B. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to LAN

C. Fibre Channel dedicated ports go to 5k

D. 5K dedicated ports go to SAN

Which is a feature of RAID 5?

A. Provides two disk redundancy

B. Stores parity in one disk

C. Performs 4 I/O per write update

D. Greatly improved write performance

What is used to provide Equal-Cost Multipath (ECMP) load balancing in the data plane to allow the use of all the links that are available between a client and server?

A. VN-Link

B. Zoning

C. Cisco FabricPath

D. VSM

Identify the current and future Cisco MDS 9000 Series switch licensing model upgrade options that are possible. (Choose two)

A. Module-based Licensing

B. Kickstart-based Licensing

C. Port-based Licensing

D. Feature-based Licensing

What options describe the characteristics of block-based protocols? (Choose three)

A. SCSI has a very high latency when transporting data

B. SCSI can be transported using two specific methods

C. Fibre Channel cable is considered to have lossless delivery method

D. FCoE transport replaces Fibre Channel cabling with 10-Gb Ethernet cables and provides lossless delivery over unified I/O

E. SCSI is a block-based protocol for writing and reading data blocks to and from a storage device

Why would you consider using asymmetric virtualization? (Choose two)

A. I/O is split into three parts

B. It offers a single point of management

C. It does not require host agents

D. It offers low latency

You require a 5000 series switch that will be used for End of Row (EoR) connectivity. It needs to be equipped with 1 Gb/s connectivity ports on the base module.

Considering the Cisco Nexus 5010 switch, how many ports on this switch can support 1 Gb/s connectivity on the base module?

A. 4

B. 12

C. 16

D. 8

You have a small branch location that has a mix of the UNIX and Linux operating systems; these clients need the fastest access to shared files and directories stored and administered centrally from a storage system.

Which protocol should you select to provide access to remote storage devices for the clients?

A. Fibre Channel

B. NFS

C. TCP/IP

D. CIFS

Which server virtualization solution requires a host operating system?

A. VMware ESX

B. VMware Workstation

C. Microsoft Hyper-V

D. VMware vCenter Server

What is located in the top-left pane of the Cisco UCS Manager GUI?

A. Navigation trail

B. Fault summary

C. Equipment tab

D. Server tab

Which of the following can be verified by the "vemcmd show card" command? (Choose two)

A. Control and packet VLANs

B. VSM port

C. VEM control agent MAC ID

D. Card name and domain ID

E. VEM port

Which command, issued on a Cisco Nexus 7000 series switch, is used to view only the MAC addresses that are learned for the VLANs that are extended on the overlay?

A. show mac address-table

B. show otv route

C. show otv adjacency

D. show otv overlay

While calculating your results take a moment to complete our simple survey!

How likely is it that you would recommend LearnCisco.net
to a friend or colleague?

Why?

While calculating your results take a moment to complete our simple survey!

How likely is it that you would recommend LearnCisco.net to a friend or colleague?

Why?

How likely is it that you would recommend LearnCisco.net
to a friend or colleague?