CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Which vSwitch component acts as a switch uplink and provides connectivity to the external network?

A. Port group

B. Physical NIC

C. Physical switch

D. vNIC

The Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch has two slots that are available for supervisor modules. You need a supervisor module that can support 48 Gigabit Ethernet ports using SFP options and speeds up to 46 Gb/s on the switch fabric interface.

Which supervisor module meets this requirement?

A. N7K-M108X2-12L

B. N7K-M148GS-11

C. N7K-M132XP-12

D. N7K-M148GT-11

What options describe the Fibre Channel Name Server service features? (Choose three)

A. FCNS supports soft zoning by performing WWN lookups to verify zone membership

B. The Fibre Channel Name Server (FCNS) implements a database in the fabric for storing information about FCIDs, pWWNs, and nWWNs

C. Management applications use Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) lookups to obtain information about the fabric

D. FCNS sends Registered State Change Notification (RSCN) to the fabric when a local change occurs

Which feature of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Supervisor Module improves network planning, provides faster operation response times to events, and reduces operating costs?

A. RAID

B. Cable management system

C. CMP

D. Packet capture and protocol decoding tool

Which two are reasons why LAN and SAN infrastructures have traditionally been separated? (Choose two)

A. Flow control

B. Security

C. Aggregation

D. Latency

Which statements describe the use of the Cisco Nexus Operating System setup utility? (Choose two)

A. If a question has a default answer in square brackets [xx], then the Enter key can be used to accept the default parameter

B. The setup utility is only used for initial configuration and cannot be used at any time for basic device configuration

C. The admin user is the only user that the switch knows about initially until other users are manually configured

D. It is an interactive GUI that guides you through a basic configuration of the system when no configuration exists

Which feature best describes the VE port?

A. Enables multihop Fibre Channel

B. Act as an FCoE inter-switch link

C. Enables Fibre Channel between switches

D. Limits the speeds that can be reached

How many different types of service profile templates are there to use to create profiles?

A. 2

B. 1

C. Unlimited

D. 4

Identify the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches access roles. (Choose four)

A. VDC-admin

B. VDC-operator

C. Admin-operator

D. Network-operator

E. Network-admin

F. Admin-VDC

Which of the following does the Data Center Bridging Exchange Protocol rely on to transmit information to devices?

A. Enhanced Transmission Selection

B. Virtual Forwarder

C. Link Level Flow Control

D. Link Layer Discovery Protocol

Which is a feature of parity?

A. Uses more storage than mirroring

B. Needs twice the amount of hard-drives

C. Generally costs more than mirroring

D. Uses one disk as a parity

Which product has a fixed module and one slot for an I/O module?

A. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch

B. Cisco MDS 9222i Multiservice Modular Switch

C. Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director Switch

D. Cisco MDS 9124 Multilayer Fabric Switch

What statements best describe the Cisco Nexus 5000 control plane system architecture? (Choose two)

A. In the control plane, the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch runs the Cisco NX-OS Software on a single-core 1.66-GHz Intel LV Xeon CPU with 2 GB of DRAM

B. The NX-OS Software provides isolation between control and data forwarding planes to prevent disruption within one plane from disrupting the other

C. The supervisor complex is connected to the data plane in-band through two external ports running 1-Gb/s Ethernet

D. The control plane is responsible for managing all the data traffic

Which characteristic would make the Cisco MDS 9500 Series switches a good choice for the core layer of your data center SAN design?

A. Cooling efficiency

B. High availability

C. Policy-based VM connectivity

D. Non-disruptive image upgrades

Which distance is the maximum supported when using multihop FCoE with VE Ports?

A. 220 m

B. 100 m

C. 300 m

D. 550 m

Which is a feature that best describes the Cisco UCS C200 M2 rack server?

A. Can support up to four CPUs

B. Up to 200 GB of DRAM

C. Up to ten hard drives

D. Two half-length adapter slots

When planning storage virtualization, why would you consider using array-based virtualization? (Choose two)

A. You require storage platform independence

B. You require high performance and scalability

C. You require host platform independence

D. You require a software solution

What is necessary for chassis discovery to occur after a chassis is initially connected to the fabric?

A. Cisco UCS Manager receives a re-acknowledgement of the chassis.

B. Cisco UCS Manager retrieves inventory details and stores it in its database.

C. Cisco UCS Manager discovers the FCoE VLANs and remote virtual Fibre Channel interfaces.

D. Cisco UCS Manager recognizes that a new server link is active.

What is used as a central management component in a server virtualization environment?

A. VMware Workstation

B. VMware vMotion

C. VMware vCenter Server

D. VMware ESXi

Which of the following is used to establish the Fibre Channel virtual links?

A. FCoE logical End Point

B. Fibre Channel Forwarder

C. ENode

D. FCoE initialization protocol

Cisco FabricPath provides ECMP capabilities.

How many ECMP paths does it support?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 16

Which two statements describe an overlay interface and how it is used? (Choose two)

A. It is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface.

B. The entire OTV overlay configuration is applied to the physical interface.

C. Layer 2 frames are logically forwarded to the overlay interface.

D. It operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model.

Which Cisco UCS server rack model has up to 16 hard-drives, 1 TB of RAM, and up to 2 CPUs?

A. C460

B. C240

C. C260

D. C220

Which statement(s) describe the Ethernet and Fibre Channel GEM2 on the 5500 platform series switch? (Choose three)

A. The N55-M16UP GEM provides 16 unified ports which can be configured as a native Fibre Channel port only

B. The unified port expansion module may be only installed on the 5548 Platform switch chassis

C. The N55-M8P8FP GEM provides eight 1 or 10 Gigabit Ethernet and FCoE ports using the SFP+ interface

D. In Ethernet operation, a unified GEM port functions as a 1 or 10-Gb/s port, or in Fibre Channel operations as 8/4/2/1-Gb/s

E. The N55-M16P GEM provides 16 1 and 10Gb/s ports using the SFP+ transceiver

Which two items are used by the Cisco Nexus P81E virtual interface card to extend the current benefits of the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series FEX architecture to the server NICs? (Choose two)

A. Adapter FEX

B. VIC

C. VM-FEX

D. I/O connectivity

Which Blade Server model has a maximum RAM capability of 512 GB?

A. B250 M2

B. B200 M3

C. B440 M2

D. B230 M2

Which is a feature of RAID 0+1?

A. Improves read performance

B. Features low input/ output rates

C. Cheaper alternative to RAID 0

D. Provides a low fault tolerance

Which component combination is required to enable adapter port channels to work?

A. 6120XP and 2204XP

B. 6296UP and 2104XP

C. 6248UP and 2208XP

D. 6140XP and 2104XP

Which UCS tool addresses the issue you would have when dealing with a stateful environment?

A. Policies

B. Schedules

C. Pools

D. Service profile

Identify the options that describe remote I/O module operation of the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders. (Choose two)

A. The 2000 Series Fabric Extender may be used to add multiple Ethernet ports to the switches creating a virtualized switch chassis

B. The 2000 Series Fabric Extenders can be deployed with the 7000 Series Switch to create a data center network combining the advantages of an EoR design with the advantages of a ToR design

C. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders are a remote I/O module for a Cisco Nexus 5000 or 3000 Series switch

D. The 2000 Fabric Extenders that serve as remote I/O modules of a switch are managed and configured from the Cisco Nexus switch

Which tool is used to reacknowledge the chassis state?

A. Fabric interconnect

B. Finite state machine

C. I/O module

D. RAID controllers

How many ports on the Cisco Nexus 5010 Switch support 1 Gb/s connectivity on the base module?

A. 12

B. 16

C. 8

D. 4

What options describe how multihoming is automated with OTV? (Choose two)

A. The AED role is configured on a per-VLAN basis between all the OTV edge devices belonging to the same site

B. The AED forwards Layer 2 unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic between the site and the overlay, and vice versa

C. Multihoming sites to an overlay must be configured

D. OTV has a built-in mechanism that ensures only one of the edge devices will forward traffic for a given VLAN

E. OTV elects one of the edge devices to be the authoritative edge device (AED) for a subset of the extended VLANs

Under what tab in the UCS Manager would you find service profiles and pools?

A. Admin

B. Equipment

C. SAN

D. Servers

Which I/O module component is used to carry management traffic?

A. Chassis Management Switch

B. Chassis Management Controller

C. Integrated Management Controller

D. UCS Manager

Which characteristic describes a collapsed core network architecture?

A. It overcomes the challenges that are inherent to traditional Layer 2 DCI technologies.

B. The switches provide direct connections for the access-layer switches, server farm, and edge modules.

C. One layer of switches connects servers to storage.

D. It uses credit-based flow control to prevent frames from being lost when the Rx port runs out of free buffers.

How many days are available in the grace license period on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch?

A. 60

B. 90

C. 180

D. 120

Which is a feature of RAID 0?

A. Provides single disk redundancy

B. Reduces disk performance

C. Provides two disk redundancy

D. Data distributed among all disks

Which tasks is a hypervisor responsible for? (Choose two)

A. It provides connectivity between individual VMs

B. It stores or retrieves data directly across the SAN

C. It provides resources to individual operating systems

D. It intercepts the block I/O requests

What are port profiles used for? (Choose two)

A. To manually configure an interface

B. To correspond to port groups in VMware

C. To configure interfaces in the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch with a common set of configuration commands

D. To assign network settings to VMs and uplink ports

The Fibre Channel Name Server (FCNS) is a distributed service that implements a database in the fabric for storing information about each node. The information stored about each node includes the Fibre Channel IDs (FCIDs), pWWns and nWWNs. It also contains the Fibre Channel operating parameters, such as upper-layer protocols (ULPs) and classes of service.

A. VSAN

B. FCID

C. FCNS

D. FLOGI

Which endpoints elements can be managed from the UCS Manager?

A. Switch

B. All of the above

C. Blade server

D. Chassis

E. Rack server

What statements best describe the Cisco Nexus 5000 data plane system architecture? (Choose three)

A. Cisco NX-OS provides isolation between control and data forwarding planes so that disruption within one plane does not disrupt the other

B. A single stage Unified Crossbar Fabric (UCF) interconnects the Unified Port Controllers (UPC)

C. The UPC is responsible for coupling ingress UFCs to available egress UFCs

D. The UFC manages all packet-processing operations within the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches

E. Each UPC manages four 10 Gigabit Ethernet ports and makes forwarding decisions for the packets received on those ports

What is a feature of the UCS P81E virtual interface card?

A. Is used for physical connections

B. Enables use of Ethernet

C. Establishes 28 virtual connections

D. Optimizes bandwidth

Which of the following FEX deployments provides the most redundant topology?

A. Active/active model

B. Dynamic Pinning model

C. Active/passive model

D. Static Pinning model

What are the characteristics of the vNetwork standard switch operation in a virtual network? (Choose two)

A. It supports inbound and outbound load balancing

B. It participates in STP, DTP, or PAgP

C. It provides connectivity for VM communication within and between ESX hosts

D. It operates as a physical layer 2 switch

Which member of the Cisco Nexus product family supports up to five fabric modules?

A. Cisco Nexus 5010

B. Cisco Nexus 5020

C. Cisco Nexus 5500

D. Cisco Nexus 7000

Which protocols are file-based storage protocols? (Choose two)

A. SCSI

B. CIFS

C. NFS

D. iSCSI

E. Fibre Channel

Which of the following is true about server pools?

A. Server pools can be populated manually

B. Server pools are logical

C. Blade server cannot be in multiple pools at same time

D. A server profile is associated with the pool

Which address type must be mapped to Ethernet MAC addresses to support FCoE?

A. FHRP

B. IPv6

C. IPv4

D. pWWN

For how many days may licensed features be evaluated on the Cisco MDS Series switch?

A. 60

B. 120

C. 30

D. 90

How does the OTV control protocol handle unknown unicasts and ARP caching? (Choose three)

A. Flooding is required for MAC address learning

B. OTV edge devices forward Layer 2 traffic only if it has previously received information on how to reach that remote MAC destination

C. Each OTV edge device maintains an ARP cache to reduce ARP traffic on the overlay

D. By default, OTV suppresses the flooding of unknown unicast frames across the overlay

Which options influence the data center design? (Choose four)

A. Architectures that can distribute Layer 2 traffic on all available links

B. The need for a higher level of reliability, with minimized downtime for updates and configuration changes

C. The need to decrease computing power at a lower cost

D. The need to reduce overall power consumption in the data center

E. The need to optimize computing resources by increasing the rate of growth of physical computing nodes

F. Architectures capable of supporting a SAN and a LAN on the same network for server consolidation

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