CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

Which best describes a feature of the FET?

A. Supports up to 100 meter connectivity

B. Supports over 110 meter connectivity

C. Supports less than 50 meter connectivity

D. Supports over 100 meter connectivity

What is the stripe length when we have two disks with each stripe block being 512 bytes?

A. 1024

B. 2

C. 256

D. 512

Identify the data center issues that should be considered when building a data center cloud. (Choose two)

A. Seamless workload mobility between multiple data centers

B. Business continuity with workload mobility

C. Geographic dispersion

D. Pool and minimize global compute resources

Which options influence the data center design? (Choose four)

A. Architectures that can distribute Layer 2 traffic on all available links

B. The need for a higher level of reliability, with minimized downtime for updates and configuration changes

C. The need to decrease computing power at a lower cost

D. The need to reduce overall power consumption in the data center

E. The need to optimize computing resources by increasing the rate of growth of physical computing nodes

F. Architectures capable of supporting a SAN and a LAN on the same network for server consolidation

Identify the options that describe remote I/O module operation of the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders. (Choose two)

A. The 2000 Series Fabric Extender may be used to add multiple Ethernet ports to the switches creating a virtualized switch chassis

B. The 2000 Series Fabric Extenders can be deployed with the 7000 Series Switch to create a data center network combining the advantages of an EoR design with the advantages of a ToR design

C. Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders are a remote I/O module for a Cisco Nexus 5000 or 3000 Series switch

D. The 2000 Fabric Extenders that serve as remote I/O modules of a switch are managed and configured from the Cisco Nexus switch

Which two statements describe the configuration of a zone set? (Choose two)

A. When you initially create a new zone set, it becomes a part of the full zone set.

B. You need to copy the configuration to the startup configuration after initially activating a new zone.

C. The active zone set cannot be modified.

D. Zone set configurations are local to each switch.

How many Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders can be connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switch with no Layer 3 daughter card or expansion module?

A. 8

B. 12

C. 24

D. 32

How does the Cisco NX-OS Software platform use vPC technology to address the limitations associated with classic port-channel communication?

A. A CoPP policy protects the control plane and separates it from the data plane.

B. A topology-based Layer 2 routing mechanism provides an Equal-Cost Multipath (ECMP) forwarding model.

C. A pair of switches acting as a vPC peer endpoint looks like a single logical entity to port-channel-attached devices.

D. All switches use STP to provide loop detection and loop management capability for Layer 2 networks.

Which is a feature that best describes the Cisco UCS B200 M3?

A. Components are not hot-swappable

B. Has the ability to support four CPUs

C. It is a first generation server

D. Has memory banks for each CPU

Which file-based storage protocol is used by Microsoft Windows servers to read and write files across a network?

A. NFS

B. FCoE

C. SCSI

D. CIFS

Identify the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches access roles. (Choose four)

A. VDC-admin

B. VDC-operator

C. Admin-operator

D. Network-operator

E. Network-admin

F. Admin-VDC

Which command is entered on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM to verify whether the configuration was successfully pushed to vCenter?

A. show module

B. vem status

C. show module vem map

D. show svs domain

Which three pieces of information are maintained by the VSAN Manager about each VSAN? (Choose three)

A. State of the VSAN

B. Buffer-to-buffer credit allocation

C. The load-balancing scheme used

D. Name of the VSAN

E. The Fibre Channel timers

Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch capabilities have been greatly enhanced compared to vSwitches or vDSs? (Choose two)

A. Network vMotion

B. VLAN control

C. QoS capabilities

D. Bi-directional traffic shaping

What options listed describe the virtualized switch chassis from a physical and logical view? (Choose three)

A. When two parent switches are linked, they logically combine to form two separate virtual switches

B. Depending on the switch model, the virtualized switch chassis can contain up to 48 virtual I/O modules

C. Physically, the parent switch is a separate device that is connected via fabric extensions down to each FEX

D. The 7000 or 5000 switches and the 2000 fabric extenders connected to them combine to form the virtualized switch chassis

E. From a logical view, the FEX is connected into the parent switch as a module

What statements describe infrastructure consolidation in the data center? (Choose three)

A. Consolidation can add flexibility to the data center design

B. Consolidation of multiple logical switches on one physical switch can be implemented to improve hardware utilization

C. Through the use of partitioning, consolidation of different logical zones onto one physical infrastructure can be accomplished

D. The use of VLANs and virtual router forwarding provide separation of administration and management functions or isolation of fault domains

Traditionally, LAN and SAN infrastructures have been separated for various reasons.

Identify the options that describe these reasons. (Choose three)

A. Separation helps to ensure security so that the data stored on the SAN appliances cannot be corrupted through normal TCP/IP hacking methodologies

B. Higher bandwidth was less common on SAN infrastructures than on LAN infrastructures; separation was required

C. SAN infrastructures use a buffer-to-buffer flow control that ensures that data is delivered in order and without any loss in transit unlike the TCP/IP flow control methodology

D. SAN infrastructures traditionally provide higher performance and separation was required

What must be created and bound to the Ethernet interface for each of the FCF-connected Ethernet interfaces when configuring multihop FCoE?

A. VN Port

B. vFC interface

C. Fabric interface

D. VE Port

Which product supports a front-to-back airflow to address the requirements for hot-aisle and cold-aisle deployments without additional complexity?

A. Cisco Nexus 18-Slot Switch

B. Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switch

C. Cisco Nexus 9-Slot Switch

D. Cisco Nexus 10-Slot Switch

Which command is entered on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM to verify whether configuration parameters can be pushed to vCenter?

A. show svs connections

B. vemcmd show port

C. vem status

D. show module vem map

Which describes a feature of the Ethernet port roles?

A. Port modes cannot be changed

B. Physical ports cannot be changed

C. Port roles can be unconfigured

D. Ports can have multiple roles

How is the 5K connected to the 2K for distances over 10 meters?

A. Passive Twinax

B. Wireless

C. Active Twinax

D. Optic Cable

Which language is used by Cisco UCS Manager to interface and manage components?

A. XML

B. JSON

C. RDF

D. HTML

How does vDS bring additional functionality and simplified management to the VMware network? (Choose two)

A. It allows you to track VM port state with migrations

B. It adds the ability to use private VLANs

C. It allows as many as 32 VMNICs

D. It allows as many as 1016 useable ports

A word is the smallest unit of data that a Fibre Channel uses.

How many bits does a word consist of?

A. 128

B. 64

C. 16

D. 32

Which two are requirements for FCoE? (Choose two)

A. The entire Ethernet frame must be carried in the payload of a single Fibre Channel frame

B. FIP must be used for Fibre Channel device login

C. A minimum 1 Gb/s Ethernet platform

D. Lossless delivery of Fibre Channel frames

Which Fibre Channel port type is attached to a switch and is used to connect to a disk?

A. F Port

B. ST Port

C. E Port

D. TNP Port

E. FL Port

Which Blade Server model has a maximum RAM capability of 512 GB?

A. B250 M2

B. B200 M3

C. B440 M2

D. B230 M2

Which is a feature of the VIC 1280?

A. Compatible with 6200 Fabric Interconnect

B. Includes a software-based failover

C. Provides two minute failover response time

D. Provides maximum 40 gigabits per second

Select the statements that describe tradition layer 2 DCI solutions. (Choose three)

A. Traditional Layer 2 DCI solutions are commonly built over PPPOE

B. Traditional Layer 2 DCI solutions tend to make inefficient use of bandwidth

C. EoMPLS is used to provision point-to-point Layer 2 Ethernet connections between two sites using MPLS as the transport

D. Dark fiber technologies increase the total bandwidth over the same number of fibers

E. VPLS is used to provision point-to-point Layer 2 Ethernet connections between two sites using point-to-point Ethernet pseudowires

Which of the following can be verified by the "vemcmd show card" command? (Choose two)

A. Control and packet VLANs

B. VSM port

C. VEM control agent MAC ID

D. Card name and domain ID

E. VEM port

Which two statements describe storage communications between initiators and targets? (Choose two)

A. LUN mapping controls paths between initiators and targets.

B. The client application resides on the target.

C. The initiator is typically a storage device.

D. LUN masking makes specific LUNs available to server ports.

What should you consider when implementing host-based virtualization? (Choose two)

A. This solution is vendor-proprietary and difficult to manage in a heterogeneous SAN

B. It is licensed on a per-host basis and can be expensive

C. The virtualization software is complex and must trap and redirect every frame before it reaches the storage target

D. It can have scalability issues and can be a single point of failure if the devices are not clustered

Which is true regarding the LAN data center access layer?

A. Typically built at Layer 2

B. Typically provides Layer 3 connectivity from the data center to the core

C. Combines switching and routing functionality into one device

D. Allows dual-homing of a downstream device to two upstream devices

Which two are reasons why LAN and SAN infrastructures have traditionally been separated? (Choose two)

A. Flow control

B. Security

C. Aggregation

D. Latency

What is a virtual interface that migrates along with a VM and virtual network link called?

A. Floating vEth interface

B. Static vNIC

C. Fixed vEth interface

D. Dynamic vNIC

Identify the statements that best describe how FabricPath uses the IS-IS protocol for control plane operations. (Choose two)

A. Layer 2 IS-IS is used as the control protocol for the Cisco FabricPath

B. Using custom TTL settings IS-IS devices can exchange information about virtually anything

C. There is no need to run STP with Cisco FabricPath and Layer 2 IS-IS

D. There is a requirement for IP reachability in order to form adjacency between devices

Which option does Cisco UCSM use to group resources?

A. Storage arrays

B. Layers

C. Port groups

D. Pools

What are the benefits that VMs have over physical devices? (Choose two)

A. They use operating systems differently than physical devices

B. They allow more efficient use of resources

C. They are extremely simple to back up, modify, or even duplicate

D. They do not require identifiers like MAC and IP addresses

What vPC component is used in a virtual port channel to create the illusion of a single control plane?

A. vPC peer

B. vPC peer keepalive

C. vPC link

D. vPC peer link

Identify the VDC deployment models. (Choose three)

A. Service insertion where management and control is separated for access and aggregation layers

B. Bus topology where virtual devices are daisy-chained on a parallel bus

C. Dual core where two redundant data center cores use only a pair of Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches

D. Multiple aggregation blocks where separate aggregation blocks are deployed for different business units or functions

You want to implement a Cisco Nexus 7000 M2-Series I/O module that will provide scalability and high-performance as well as offering the flexibility and features required. You are exploring your options as you have specific port requirements that support 40 Gb/s each.

How many ports are on the Cisco Nexus 7000 40 Gigabit Ethernet module?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 4

D. 8

Which statements describe the use of the Cisco Nexus Operating System setup utility? (Choose two)

A. If a question has a default answer in square brackets [xx], then the Enter key can be used to accept the default parameter

B. The setup utility is only used for initial configuration and cannot be used at any time for basic device configuration

C. The admin user is the only user that the switch knows about initially until other users are manually configured

D. It is an interactive GUI that guides you through a basic configuration of the system when no configuration exists

Which two actions should be done before you apply power to the initial Cisco UCS Manager configuration? (Choose two)

A. Connect the cables between the chassis and fabric interconnects.

B. Connect the northbound server ports and southbound uplink ports.

C. Connect the links of all I/O modules to both fabric interconnects.

D. Connect the fabric interconnects' L1 and L2 ports.

How can vPC peer switches using STP present themselves as a single logical switch to devices? (Choose two)

A. If the peer-switch option is not used, the primary switch generates and processes BPDUs and uses its own bridge ID for the BPDUs. The secondary switch only relays BPDUs.

B. A system ID is generated from a reserved pool of MAC addresses and combined with the vPC domain ID.

C. If the peer-switch option is used, both switches generate and process BPDUs. Both switches use the same bridge ID.

D. If the peer-switch option is not used, the primary switch generates and processes BPDUs and uses its own bridge ID for the BPDUs. The secondary switch generates BPDUs, but does not relay them.

Which of the following is/are required to configure communication between the VSM and vCenter? (Choose two)

A. Manual configuration on the VSM

B. No further software installation is required

C. Port 80 must be available for use

D. The use of the installer application on the VSM

Which is most applicable when dividing fibre connectivity?

A. Singlemode fibre

B. Passive Twinax

C. Multimode fibre

D. Active Twinax

Which statement(s) describes the evolution of data centers? (Choose three)

A. The second era emphasized client-server and centralized computing

B. The third era brings a significantly higher return on investment and lower total cost of ownership

C. Second era services were distributed because of poor computing ability and high link cost

D. The third era has a much higher utilization of servers than in the distributed approach

E. First era users performed their work using a client-server model

Which two statements describe the 2148T Fabric Extender? (Choose two)

A. Provides 48 host ports operating at 1 Gb/s

B. Supports FCoE/DCB

C. Supports one fabric port channel containing up to four ports, using L2/L3/L4 hash for load balancing

D. Does not support host port channels

Which vPC component is referred to as a device that is connected to a vPC peer using a non-vPC link?

A. vPC peer

B. Orphan device

C. Orphan port

D. vPC domain

In UCS Manager, under which tab are the BIOS and adapter policies located?

A. Servers

B. Equipment

C. Admin

D. VM

How many different types of service profile templates are there to use to create profiles?

A. 2

B. 1

C. Unlimited

D. 4

The Fibre Channel Name Server (FCNS) is a distributed service that implements a database in the fabric for storing information about each node. The information stored about each node includes the Fibre Channel IDs (FCIDs), pWWns and nWWNs. It also contains the Fibre Channel operating parameters, such as upper-layer protocols (ULPs) and classes of service.

A. VSAN

B. FCID

C. FCNS

D. FLOGI

Which module component enables keyboard and mouse functions?

A. Chassis Management Switch

B. UCS Manager

C. Integrated Management Controller

D. Chassis Management Controller

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Why?

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