CCNA DC Technologies Practice Test

What is used to provide Equal-Cost Multipath (ECMP) load balancing in the data plane to allow the use of all the links that are available between a client and server?

A. VN-Link

B. Zoning

C. Cisco FabricPath

D. VSM

What benefits does network-based virtualization provide to overcome the challenges of traditional SAN management solutions? (Choose two)

A. Data is better protected by simplified snapshot and replication techniques

B. The virtualization manager remaps the CDB and LUN and returns it to the server

C. The server sends the modified control frame to the storage target port

D. Servers are no longer responsible for volume management and data migration

Which two Cisco Nexus 2000 Series FEXs provide support for up to 24 host port channels? (Choose two)

A. 2148T

B. 2232PP

C. 2248TP-E

D. 2224TP

What are the benefits of using the Fibre Channel? (Choose four)

A. Support for multiple protocols

B. Supports the shared transport option only

C. Provides host speed of 800 MB/s

D. Addressing for as many as 16 million nodes

E. Segment distances of as far as 3.2 miles

F. Combines the benefits of a channel and a network

What are the benefits of VDC implementation? (Choose four)

A. VDCs allow multiple physical switches to be implemented on one virtual switch

B. Partitioning enables the consolidation of different logical zones onto one physical infrastructure

C. A VDC has the same functional characteristics as a physical switch

D. VDCs can provide additional design flexibility and efficiency in a dual-core topology

E. Physical ports can easily be reallocated between VDCs allowing for ease of changes and additions

Which server virtualization solution requires a host operating system?

A. VMware ESX

B. VMware Workstation

C. Microsoft Hyper-V

D. VMware vCenter Server

Which two transports are used for traditional SAN connectivity? (Choose two)

A. Fibre Channel over Ethernet

B. Fibre Channel cable

C. Internet Small Computer System Interface

D. Parallel SCSI cable

Which tasks is a hypervisor responsible for? (Choose two)

A. It provides connectivity between individual VMs

B. It stores or retrieves data directly across the SAN

C. It provides resources to individual operating systems

D. It intercepts the block I/O requests

What options best describe the Cisco MDS 9500 Series supervisor module capabilities? (Choose three)

A. The Supervisor-2 module can be used in any Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors switch

B. When a Supervisor-1 module is installed in the Cisco MDS 9513 Multilayer Director switch 528 ports are supported

C. Supports Cisco MDS 9513 Multilayer Director Implementation with the use of the Supervisor-1 module

D. The Supervisor-2 module offers additional flash memory, RAM and NVRAM memory, and redundant BIOS

E. Supervisor-2A Module supports deployment of FCoE in the chassis of the Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors

Cisco FabricPath provides ECMP capabilities.

How many ECMP paths does it support?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 16

How does the iSCSI protocol provide an interoperable solution? (Choose three)

A. One area that is not addressed with iSCSI is distance limitations

B. Allows IP hosts to gain access to Fibre Channel-based storage targets

C. Products from the Cisco MDS 9000 Series family provide transparent SCSI routing

D. Leverages existing IP-based infrastructures and management facilities

E. Uses TCP port 3620 to provide congestion control and in-order delivery of error-free data

What are the benefits of virtualized switch chassis fabric extenders? (Choose four)

A. Data plane supervisor redundancy

B. Isolated and redundant fabric paths

C. Allows the mixing of copper and optical cabling environments

D. Forwarding and fabric ASIC redundancy

E. Provide power supply and fan redundancy

Which options describe Cisco MDS 9500 Series power supply capabilities? (Choose three)

A. Power is reserved for the supervisor and fan assemblies only in redundant mode

B. In combined mode, the chassis uses twice the power capacity of the lower-capacity power supply modules

C. Power supply modules are configured in combined mode by default

D. Each supervisor module is allocated 220 W in reserve

E. In redundant mode, the chassis uses the power capacity of the lower-capacity power supply module

Which two statements describe Wide Area Application Service (WAAS) support in the Data Center? (Choose two)

A. Service devices that are deployed in the distribution layer benefit only the servers that are directly attached to the specific distribution switch.

B. Using a dual-homing NIC in the access layer requires a VLAN or trunk link between the two access switches.

C. Deploying WAAS in the distribution layer may impose a large STP processing load.

D. The data center access layer requires Layer 2 connectivity.

E. Security and application service devices are typically deployed as modules in the access layer.

What is used as a central management component in a server virtualization environment?

A. VMware Workstation

B. VMware vMotion

C. VMware vCenter Server

D. VMware ESXi

Which endpoints elements can be managed from the UCS Manager?

A. Switch

B. All of the above

C. Blade server

D. Chassis

E. Rack server

Which options describe how the NFS protocol transports data between servers and remote storage devices? (Choose four)

A. Network File System (NFS) uses the client-server architecture

B. To the NFS clients the local disks look like the remote disks

C. Allows systems to access shared files and directories stored and administered centrally from a storage system

D. There are two versions of NFS, version 1 (NFSv1) and version 2 (NFSv2)

E. NFS resides at Layer 7 within the OSI protocol stack

F. A NFS server has one or more file systems that are mounted by the NFS clients

What should you consider when using Hyper-V instead of VMware? (Choose two)

A. Multiple hosts cannot access the same LUN on SAN storage

B. A virtualized partition has access to the physical processor

C. It uses cluster-shared volumes storage to support live migration of Hyper-V VMs from one Hyper-V server to another

D. It isolates VM operating systems from one another through partitioning or logical isolation

How does the flow control improve performance under high traffic loads? (Choose three)

A. A credit-based flow control strategy prevents frames from being lost when the Tx Port runs out of free buffers

B. Using flow control, the Tx Port sends frames only when it knows that the Rx Port can accept them

C. A credit-based flow control strategy ensures that the Tx Port is always in control

D. Preventing lost frames maximizes performance under high-traffic load conditions because the Tx Port does not need to resend frames

E. Using a credit-based flow control, the receiver must issue a credit for each frame that the transmitter sends before at frame can be sent

What information would you expect to be returned from the "show module" command on the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch? (Choose four)

A. Status

B. Ports

C. Model

D. Domain ID

E. Control VLAN

F. Module type

Identify the options that describe capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Supervisor Module. (Choose three)

A. Can be upgraded to support Cisco Unified Fabric technology

B. Centralized forwarding architecture enabling independent upgrades of the supervisor and fabric

C. Contains a built-in packet capture and protocol decoding tool allows the analysis of control plane traffic

D. Continuous system operation with the help of active and standby supervisors

E. Uses CMP to provide a complete OOB management and monitoring capability independent from the primary operating system

Which describes a feature of the Ethernet port roles?

A. Port modes cannot be changed

B. Physical ports cannot be changed

C. Port roles can be unconfigured

D. Ports can have multiple roles

Which is the expansion port that is only available when referring to generation 2 Fabric Interconnects?

A. 16-port Unified Port Expansion Module

B. 48-port Unified Port Expansion Module

C. 8-port Unified Port Expansion Module

D. 32-port Unified Port Expansion Module

Which technology helps to facilitate the creation of highly scalable data centers?

A. VNTag

B. VN-Link

C. Dark fibre

D. FabricPath

Which part sets the FCoE model apart from the FC model?

A. ULP Mapping

B. Generic Services

C. Ethernet Media Access Control

D. Framing & Flow Control

Traditionally, LAN and SAN infrastructures have been separated for various reasons.

Identify the options that describe these reasons. (Choose three)

A. Separation helps to ensure security so that the data stored on the SAN appliances cannot be corrupted through normal TCP/IP hacking methodologies

B. Higher bandwidth was less common on SAN infrastructures than on LAN infrastructures; separation was required

C. SAN infrastructures use a buffer-to-buffer flow control that ensures that data is delivered in order and without any loss in transit unlike the TCP/IP flow control methodology

D. SAN infrastructures traditionally provide higher performance and separation was required

Which options describe the Layer 3 daughter card for the Cisco Nexus 5548 switch? (Choose two)

A. There is no requirement to power down the switch before installing the Layer 3 daughter card

B. The Layer 3 daughter card is also known and considered as a GEM

C. The N55-D160L3 is the Layer 3 daughter card that can be installed in any Cisco Nexus 5500 Series switch

D. Layer 3 support is enabled via a field-upgradable routing card that can be installed while the switch remains rack mounted

What is located in the top-left pane of the Cisco UCS Manager GUI?

A. Navigation trail

B. Fault summary

C. Equipment tab

D. Server tab

Which two statements describe the 2148T Fabric Extender? (Choose two)

A. Provides 48 host ports operating at 1 Gb/s

B. Supports FCoE/DCB

C. Supports one fabric port channel containing up to four ports, using L2/L3/L4 hash for load balancing

D. Does not support host port channels

Which of these data center related components typically would not be used in the SAN infrastructure design?

A. Access

B. Aggregation

C. Core

D. Collapsed core

Which is utilized by the active/active FEX deployment model?

A. Static Pinning

B. Virtual port channels

C. Straight-through connectivity

D. Dynamic Pinning

Which tool is used to reacknowledge the chassis state?

A. Fabric interconnect

B. Finite state machine

C. I/O module

D. RAID controllers

Which best characterizes Twinax?

A. Costs more than Fibre

B. Enables 10-GB E connectivity

C. Only available in 1-meter

D. Has 18 pins

Which two are reasons why LAN and SAN infrastructures have traditionally been separated? (Choose two)

A. Flow control

B. Security

C. Aggregation

D. Latency

Which Fibre Channel port type is attached to a switch and is used to connect to a disk?

A. F Port

B. ST Port

C. E Port

D. TNP Port

E. FL Port

Select the statements that describe conversational MAC address learning. (Choose three)

A. With conversational MAC address learning, each interface learns the MAC addresses for only the interested hosts

B. All Cisco FabricPath VLANs use conversational MAC address learning

C. With conversational MAC address learning each interface learns all MAC addresses in the domain

D. It permits the scaling of the network beyond the limits of individual switch MAC address tables

E. Classical Ethernet VLANs do not use traditional MAC address learning by default

Which two statements are true about VDCs? (Choose two)

A. Two VDCs configured for vPC on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch can share the same vPC peer link and vPC peer keepalive link.

B. A vPC domain can have a maximum of two VDCs.

C. VDCs allow a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch to be partitioned into multiple logical switches.

D. A Cisco Nexus Series switch has two default VDCs that cannot be deleted.

How many ports on the Cisco Nexus 5010 Switch support 1 Gb/s connectivity on the base module?

A. 12

B. 16

C. 8

D. 4

Which two features are now supported by the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switches that were not available in standard vSwitches or vDSs? (Choose two)

A. Network vMotion

B. Port-security

C. Bi-directional traffic shaping

D. SPAN

E. PVLANs

How many physical servers can be connected to a 5k dedicated port, including a Layer 3 card?

A. 32

B. 8

C. 768

D. 256

Which of the following FEX deployments provides the most redundant topology?

A. Active/active model

B. Dynamic Pinning model

C. Active/passive model

D. Static Pinning model

Which module component enables keyboard and mouse functions?

A. Chassis Management Switch

B. UCS Manager

C. Integrated Management Controller

D. Chassis Management Controller

Which item do you need to use when initially connecting an FEX to a server?

A. Fabric port channel

B. FEX uplink

C. FEX port

D. Fabric port

Which value is assigned to the d bit when the transmission is sent from the 5K to the host?

B. 1

C. F

D. T

Which of the following describe VDC interface allocation? (Choose four)

A. After a physical port is assigned to a VDC, all subsequent configuration of that port is performed within that VDC

B. On most I/O modules, any logical port can be individually assigned to any VDC

C. Within a VDC, both physical and logical interfaces can be assigned to VLANs

D. Physical ports are allocated to different VDCs from VDC 2

E. Logical interfaces, such as SVIs and/or tunnel interfaces, cannot be assigned to a VDC

F. Logical interfaces are always created in the VDC to which they belong

What allows servers that are connected to a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender to continue forwarding traffic on the physical NIC that connects to the FEX after seeing a link failure?

A. Dynamic pinning

B. Static pinning

C. VN-Link

D. Cisco FabricPath

Which two statements are true of running the initial setup script on the Cisco Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series switches? (Choose two)

A. Strong password enforcement needs to be enabled to protect admin passwords.

B. There is no default configuration on Cisco Nexus switches.

C. Configured parameters are kept when steps are skipped in the script.

D. SNMP access to the switch is enabled by default.

Which two statements describe an overlay interface and how it is used? (Choose two)

A. It is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface.

B. The entire OTV overlay configuration is applied to the physical interface.

C. Layer 2 frames are logically forwarded to the overlay interface.

D. It operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model.

Select the statements that describe tradition layer 2 DCI solutions. (Choose three)

A. Traditional Layer 2 DCI solutions are commonly built over PPPOE

B. Traditional Layer 2 DCI solutions tend to make inefficient use of bandwidth

C. EoMPLS is used to provision point-to-point Layer 2 Ethernet connections between two sites using MPLS as the transport

D. Dark fiber technologies increase the total bandwidth over the same number of fibers

E. VPLS is used to provision point-to-point Layer 2 Ethernet connections between two sites using point-to-point Ethernet pseudowires

Which interface is used to carry CDP packets from a VEM to a VSM?

A. Packet interface

B. Fixed vEth interface

C. Control interface

D. Floating vEth interface

What options listed describe the virtualized switch chassis from a physical and logical view? (Choose three)

A. When two parent switches are linked, they logically combine to form two separate virtual switches

B. Depending on the switch model, the virtualized switch chassis can contain up to 48 virtual I/O modules

C. Physically, the parent switch is a separate device that is connected via fabric extensions down to each FEX

D. The 7000 or 5000 switches and the 2000 fabric extenders connected to them combine to form the virtualized switch chassis

E. From a logical view, the FEX is connected into the parent switch as a module

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